Ok--that is not in dispute.
What do you believe "This is My Body" means? Does it it mean the the bread IS the Body of Christ, or do you believe it means it 'represents' the Body of Christ?
I believe it represents the body of Christ.
When Christ said it, He had not yet been sacrificed. He still had a mortal body. Thus that body could not be in two places at the same time.
If you believe the Bible is authorative, you must believe the bread IS the Body of Christ.
So--you do not believe in poetic license? You do not believe that the language sometimes used in Scripture is allegorical or symbolic?
You believe, then, that every parable is a true story, rather than a lesson being taught? You believe there really are physical dragons that try to snatch little babies as they are being born?
So you put limits on what God can do.
I believe it represents the body of Christ.
Great. Now we need to understand why you believe something that is not scriptural.
Let’s look at the Greek
Estin- is 3rd person singular active indicative
Mat 3:17 and behold, a voice out of the heavens, saying, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased."
Mat 3:17 kai idou fwnh ek twn ouranwn legousa outov estin o uiov mou o agaphtov en w eudokhsa
So here, is Jesus the Son of God, or does He represent the Son of God? Scripture says He IS the Son of God. Which is it?
Mat 17:5 While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and behold, a voice out of the cloud, saying, "This is My beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased; listen to Him!"
Mat 17:5 eti autou lalountov idou nefelh fwteinh epeskiasen autouv kai idou fwnh ek thv nefelhv legousa outov estin o uiov mou o agaphtov en w eudokhsa tsbautou akouete aautou
Again, is Jesus the Son of God, or does he represent the Son of God?
Mat 26:26 And while they were eating, Jesus took some bread, and after a blessing, He broke it and gave it to the disciples, and said, "Take, eat; this is My body."
Mat 26:26 esqiontwn de autwn labwn o ihsouv ton arton kai euxaristhsav euloghsav eklasen kai douv edidou toiv maqhtaiv tsbkai eipen labete fagete touto estin to swma mou
This is the same estin in the two prior verses. By what logic do you change the estin here to mean ‘represents’? There is no logic to support your tradition.
Mat 26:28 for this is My blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many for forgiveness of sins.
Mat 26:28 touto gar estin to aima mou to thv kainhv diaqhkhv to peri pollwn ekxunnomenon ekxunomenon eiv afesin amartiwn
This is the same estin. By what logic do you change the estin here to mean ‘represents’? There is no logic to support your tradition.
Mar 14:22 And while they were eating, He took some bread, and after a blessing He broke it; and gave it to them, and said, "Take; this is My body."
Mar 14:22 kai esqiontwn autwn labwn o ihsouv arton euloghsav eklasen kai edwken autoiv kai eipen labete fagete touto estin to swma mou
This is the same estin. By what logic do you change the estin here to mean ‘represents’? There is no logic to support your tradition.
Mar 14:24 And He said to them, "This is My blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many.
Mar 14:24 kai eipen autoiv touto estin to aima mou tsbto thv kainhv diaqhkhv to ekxunnomenon uper peri pollwn ekxunomenon
This is the same estin. By what logic do you change the estin here to mean ‘represents’? There is no logic to support your tradition.
You do not believe that the language sometimes used in Scripture is allegorical or symbolic?
I understand when Christ says he is the door, or the vine, that he is not a vine and a door. But he never says this ‘represents’ my body. That is simply not Scriptural.