You should learn a little about Greek. Greek has 'gender' in nouns. For example, in French, a female noun is preceded by "la" la femme - the woman. A male noun is preceded by "le" - le livre - the book.
In Greek, rock is petra, a feminine noun. But since Jesus called Simon (a male) the Rock, they needed a male noun, and used Petros.
There is no problem once you understand that Jesus and Peter did not speak Greek. Or Latin. Or English.
I also know that Christ (or the author) did not use the male noun when saying "...upon this rock I will build my Church."
If He was talking about Peter, He (or the author) would've used the male version, and not the female version.
Actually, not true for the first one. Greek was actually quite commonly spoken throughout Palestine, and especially in Galilee, in which a large number of Gentiles lives. Indeed, epigraphers and archaeologists have found nearly as many Greek inscriptions of all kinds from this time period in this region as they have found Aramaic and other Semitic ones. As businessmen (a carpenter and a fisherman, respectively), Jesus and Peter would both almost certainly have been fluent in Greek as an almost first language.
Couple this with the unlikelihood that Matthew's gospel was "originally" in Aramaic, which is largely based on unproven (and indeed, unprovable) theories about a "Q" document being the "original source" of the gospels, and there's no real reason to suppose that Matthew "originally" intended for there to be no gender issue with Matthew 16:18.
Indeed, one has to wonder - if Catholicism is correct, and if the "early church" (said to be Catholic) translated Matthew's Aramaic gospel into Greek, then why didn't they translate both presumed appearances of tsela as petros, to make it completely clear that Peter was the rock that Matthew was writing about?
Well just post that Aramaic bible then so we can all see what Jesus really said...Or does that exclusively belong to the Catholic religion??? Or maybe it doesn't and never did exist???