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Natural, in your defense of works, as James wrote about (Which BTW, is written to WHO? "James, a servant of God of and of the Lord Jesus Christ, TO THE TWELVE TRIBES WHICH ARE SCATTERED ABROAD, greeting". James 1:1. FYI, NOT the Church the BOdy of Christ. The twelves tribes. ISRAEL. Different dispensation, different gospel.

Anyway, BUT NOW, in the dispensation of the grace of God, the righteousness of GOd without the law has been MANIFESTED (Rom. 3:21). It was "testified in due time" through the Apostle Paul (1 Tim. 2:6,7). Paul says it was given to him to "declare, I say, at THIS TIME, His righteousness: that He might be just, and the justifier of Him which believeth in Jesus" (Rom. 3:26). THUS, to bring works to God for salvation TODAY would be UNBELIEF.

Just a simple truth of logic from God's Word.

"BUT NOW the righteousness of GOd without the law is manifested" (Rom.3:21); "To him that worketh NOT, but BELIEVETH on Him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness" (Rom. 4:5); "Being justified freely by His grace, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus (Rom. 3:24); "In whom we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins according to the riches of His grace" (Eph. 1:7): "Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to His mercy He saved us" (Tit. 3:5); "Not of yourselves, it is the gift of God: not of works, lest any man should boast" (Eph. 2:8,9).

Just a few more for your understanding.

When God says this NOW, in this dispensation of the grace of God, what will faith do? Faith will say "This is the most wonderful offer ever made by God to man. I cannot refuse it. I will trust Christ as my Savior and accept salvation as the free gift of God's grace." We are the most fortunate people to have ever walked this earth. To be living during this period, this grace of GOd, His reconciling us to Himself by the finished work of Christ. And someone wants to impress HIM by bringing works along for his salvation today???

"Different dispensation, different gospel."

There is but one dispensation, one Gospel. Unless I begin with the presumption, I cannot, even by stretching the imagination, see where the belief that St. Paul was called exclusively to give a different Gospel to the Gentiles than was given to the Jews, or that he was given that job exclusively.

"There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called to the one hope of your calling, one Lord, one faith, one baptism, one God and Father of all, who is above all and through all and in all." - Ephesians 4:4-5

Peace be with you

As simple as Ephesians 2:8&9 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.

Paul never specified what kind of works.

Works are works. If the OT law, which pointed to Christ, could not save, no other works could either.

It leaves one wondering, if the works Jesus referred to in the Beatitudes could contribute to salvation, they why the Law? Why not just give those at the very beginning and forget the other parts of the OT law completely?

What Jesus did was show the intent of the Law handed down to Moses. Jesus never established a new law anyway; He set the bar higher showing that it isn't a matter of outward action, but the heart.