Paul says there are many gods and lords with the caveat that to Christians there was only God and only One Lord. (1 Cor. 8:4-6)
Like the term “god” the term “lord” had broad application and not always in a religious setting. Generally used to address a superior, a child might call his father lord as Jesus related in parable in Matt. 21:30.
Or “lord” could be used of an owner and thus is properly applied to both Jehovah and Christ.
It certainly isn't quibbling to seek to understand how these terms are and were used as we seek to gain a deeper knowledge of Scriptures, for instance the Logos being called the “only begotten god”. (John 1:18)
“Either Jesus is God in human flesh - as Scripture overwhelmingly states - or he is merely a man with no divine nature at all. And, if he is merely a man, then he cannot be THE Savior of all mankind.”
A false choice, Jesus was never “mere”, he had all the power of heaven to call upon, was called the “last Adam” being perfect and destined to sit on a hevenly throne at the right hand of God Himself. Not “mere” by any means.
Here's what Paul said in I Cor. 8:4 "Therefore, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that “an idol has no real existence,” and that “there is no God but one.”
That doesn't sound to me like Paul was saying there ARE many gods but only to Christians there is but one. Nope, he is stating the truth that there is NO true, real god BUT the Almighty God. He continued in verses 5 & 6, "For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”— But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him."
It is inescapable that Scripture is rife with references to Jesus Christ as GOD - not "a" god, not "a mighty" god, but God incarnate. Why else would the adjective "incarnate" be used if Jesus was a man, with or without "all the power of heaven to call upon"? It was translated as "God, His own Son having sent in the likeness of sinful flesh" (Romans 8:3) and "God with us" (Matt. 1:23), the incarnation was in a human nature without any of its corruptions. Why would that even be included in Scripture if Jesus was a created being who had this one assignment?