“The Catholic Church doesn’t recognize divorce/remarriage in cases of adultery. Annulment (a finding of nullity) can be obtained only if the first marriage was actually for some reason invalid right from the start. For instance if one of the spouses never actually intended a lifelong, faithful, monogamous union.”
Of course, more importantly, God did allow divorce, and Christ and the Apostle Paul affirmed divorce in the case of adultery. All were recorded in the Spirit-breathed, Holy Scriptures.
So what does Jesus mean when He says, "except in the cases of porneia"? A better understanding of the Greek is that it means "unlawful sexual union" --- i.e., that the supposed first marriage itself was porneia, unlawful.
That makes sense because (1) it's a more accurate translation, and (2) in the practical sense, Jesus could not have said that anyone who wants to get out of a marriage, just has to commit adultery, and then, voila, divorce is possible. This would positively reward people for adultery, by dissolving their marriage, which is what they wanted in the first place.
Besides, if adultery could dissolve a marriage, it would contradict what Jesus said about marriage being a bond which "no man can put asunder." If you can put it asunder just by going ahead and committing adultery, then every marriage is dissolvable, and rather easily at that.
The "Spirit-filled, God-breathed" Holy Scriptures do, however, say that God "hates" divorce. (Malachi 2:16)