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To: Boogieman

Then you’ve not understood my argument. My argument is that the Septuagint, written by Jews for Jews includes these books. The earliest extant manuscript of the Old Testament is the Codex Vaticanus which includes these books and makes no distinction between them.

Ergo - I can conclude that we ought to follow the Jewish example in the Septuagint by using these books.


398 posted on 04/06/2013 5:30:34 PM PDT by JCBreckenridge (Texas is a state of mind - Steinbeck)
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To: JCBreckenridge

Yet, it’s already been demonstrated that the copies we have of the Septuagint don’t include all the same books, and the current canon of the Catholic church isn’t strictly based on them. So, you can’t argue that you just use a canon that the Jews made, you use a canon that has been changed by the Catholic church from what the Jews made. Which is in contradiction to your own statement:

“Arguing you should change something you didn’t make is not really a very good argument.”


450 posted on 04/07/2013 11:25:34 AM PDT by Boogieman
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