All of which proves that the RCC dogma of separating Mary from among others is unscriptural. No where is scripture are we taught that Mary is to be venerated as the Catholics do.
Mary heard the word of God, and kept it.
"And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. [...] Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: And she cried out with a loud voice, and said: Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb." - Luke 1:28,41-42
The words spoken to Mary were no different then were spoken to Jael in Judges. In fact, Jael was called blessed above women. Mary was called blessed among women.
Luke 1:28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
Judges 5:24 Blessed above women shall Jael the wife of Heber the Kenite be,
Those words were also spoken of Noah, Moses, and David.
All of which proves what?
All of which proves that the RCC dogma of separating Mary from among others is unscriptural.
No it doesn't, because Marian veneration is not solely based on the passages I cited - those were sufficient to overturn the implied claim in the topmost text above that Mary is in no way distinctive from any other believer.
No where is scripture are we taught that Mary is to be venerated as the Catholics do.
I'll side with the Holy Ghost and the Father's angelic messenger, the unique role Mary willingly played as the vessel through whom Christ's humanity was brought to be, and "from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed" (Luke 1:48 - it's clear to me from the context that this was to be a good and proper thing).