No. Against unnecessary vagueness and irresponsibility.
Isn't it pretty much a given that when somebody indicts a "them" the accuser has to specify exactly who he's referring to?
Otherwise, how do we even know if the charge is accurate?
Wow! You’re totally soaked in the Culture of Victimhood aren’t you? Who was talking about ‘indictments’ or ‘charges?’ You are arguing against the reality of plural pronouns. Drop your grievance industry rhetoric.