This is an unsupportable assertion. Sin is absolved through the Sacrament of Penance (Confession) and it is an excommunicable offense for the priest talks about it. It is also a canonical delict to make reception of any Sacrament contingent upon payment. So how would you know anything, ever, about any possible relationship between money and absolution for sin?
Or am I not understanding what you claimed to know? If this is a misunderstanding on my part, what IS it you claimed to know?
“””This is an unsupportable assertion. Sin is absolved through the Sacrament of Penance (Confession)”””
Confession booth, cashier, same thing.