How you go from "full of grace/full of favor/etc." ... to ... "sinless" is beyond me.
Since Mary was sinless, and already full of grace ... does that mean she never partook of the Lords Table in communion?
Hi. I appreciate your comment, but I'm not sure what you're getting at in your question. Do you hold that communion is only for sinners? Or am I missing something here? No sarcasm intended; just an honest question.
At any rate, the constant tradition both in the East and the West (long before Calvin, Luther and King Henry VIII) is that Mary was sinless when she conceived Jesus. So it's not I who am making up this interpretation of "fully graced one" κεχαριτωμένη, (kecharitōménē) (Lk 1:28), but, like St. Paul, "I delivered to you first of all, what I also received...", namely, that Mary was "all holy" Παναγία, (Panagia) so as to be the worthy Mother of God Θεοτόκος ("Theotokos").
What I don't understand, and perhaps you can help me on this one, is why anyone would insist on calling the Mother of Jesus a sinner if the Lord could have preserved His own chosen Mother from all stain of sin by the foreseen merits of His Passion, Death and Resurrection?
God bless you! And praised be the Lord Jesus Christ!!!