In an environment where homosexual activity was punishable by death, it was completely unnecessary for Jesus to mention it explicitly. Indeed, it would be necessary for Jesus to explicitly PROMOTE homosexuality in order to conclude that He approved. And he did not.
Respectfully, that needs a bit more context. In 30 AD Israel was part of the Pagan Roman Empire. It had been part of the Pagan Greek Empire prior to that. The Greeks were heavily into, well, you know. And Paul was writing very much in the context of that larger pro-homosexual world.
It's interesting that Paul in Romans 1 essentially equates homosexuality with idolatry. Soloman had countless wives and in the end he apostatized due to the influence of his pagan wives. So, I ask, surely there was lesbian sex running rampant in Soloman's harem, inasmuch as these women were part of the pagan world, were idolaters by definition. Was this even addressed in the Bible?
Wouldn't the absence of an explicit condemnation in the OT lend creedence to Arrogant Bustard's position?
It makes sense to me, at least.