If it was part of Jewish Law, fine. If it was part of Roman Law, not so. Which was the case?
Again an honest Q
In the Sanhedrin trial Christ was condemned for blasphemy under Jewish law, because he made a statement in court the judges saw as tantamount to claiming he was God. (Whether this statement did indeed constitute such a claim is an entirely different question.)
Had the Jewish leaders hauled him before Pilate charged with blasphemy, Pilate and the other Romans would have got a huge laugh out of the situation. Romans just did not care whether someone infringed Jewish law.
So instead the Jewish leaders charged him with political crimes: instructing people not to pay taxes, saying he was a king (therefore in direct confrontation with Caesar), and incitement to riot. The Roman judge condemned him on these charges, despite being fully aware of his innocence.
If Jesus was NOT the Christ, then he was justly condemned for blasphemy by the Jewish courts. He was completely innocent of the charges against him in the Roman court.