Replies

Natural Law; He knew before the beginning of time that Mary would cooperate fully and unconditionally. That is why He preserved her sinless.

“Got ANY SCRIPTURE at all to back that up?”

~ ~ ~

Catholics are not trying to argue because of pride.

If you look at the KJV, King James’ awful translators
really added and took away from Genesis 3:15. God knows
everything we will choose. He knew from the beginning
Mary’s fiat. Her choice.

http://cantuar.blogspot.com/2009/12/immaculate-conception-of-mary-three.html

Mary as New Eve Having Enmity with Satan

Gen 3:15
I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel..

http://www.drbo.org

In this verse God addresses Satan. The Seed here is Christ. The Woman is His Mother, that is, Mary. Thus Satan has perfect enmity with Christ and with His Mother. The Catholic Church has interpreted this as indicating the sinlessness of Christ and Mary. IF EITHER ACTUALLY COMMITTED SIN, then they would not be at enmity with Satan but actually a cooperator with Satan at times

The KJV was never intended to be a perfect translation, but it really is quite good. The translation committee was composed of many who had studied the Biblical languages from their childhood, and many of their so-called mistranslations have been vindicated over time. You need to do better than just say, “they got it wrong.” What did they get wrong? I can read Hebrew. You can tell me. What exactly did they get wrong in Genesis 3:15?

Never mind. Figured out what you were talking about. Problem is, I can read Hebrew, and the pronoun in question, אוה, pronounced “hu”, is masculine “he”, not feminine “she.” In the NKJV, the passage properly reads:

Gen 3:15 “And I will put enmity Between you and the woman, And between your seed and her Seed; He shall bruise your head, And you shall bruise His heel.”

Curiously, the KJV, and every other modern translation outside of Catholic circles, gets this right. So how did it happen that Jerome got it wrong? He probably didn’t. In Latin, the difference between “ipsa” and “ipse” is very minor, and a copyist might well have introduced it by mistake. It further appears that in one of the earliest editions, the “old vulgate,” the pronoun was indeed masculine, and in accord with the traditional belief that the referent is the Seed, who is masculine, and not the woman. Sorry.