"If any man come to Me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and children, and brethren, and sisters, yea and his own life also, he cannot be My disciple." - Luke 14:26
Are you attempting to show Jesus' Word's 'ridiculous' in light of modern moral context? or is this a vain attempt to suggest Jesus' Words should never be taken literally?
Do you know exactly why Jesus was using those examples to illustrate?
'it is clear from the Gospels that Jesus was crucified on Friday, the day of Preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath”
Where in scripture does it say Jesus was crucified on Friday? Are you not capable of reading and understanding the Gospel accounts and the timeline clearly laid out?
AGAIN, read what I laid out in Post #19. Leviticus 23:5 states that at 'even' or sunset on Nissan 14 "Is the Lord's Passover'. Then verse 26 says that on the 15th of the month at evening (sunset) - is an High Sabbath: the First Day of Unleavened Bread - a holy convocation.
It was custom, and STILL IS for the Jews to refer to the day before EITHER the regular weekly Sabbath OR the day before a High Sabbath - to be a Day of Preparation - for all Sabbaths required no work to be done.
John 19:31 makes it clear that the 'Sabbath' that was drawing on after Jesus died was NOT the regular 7th Day Sabbath, but "an high day" meaning a High Holy Day - a Holy Convocation exactly as Leviticus 23 commands. The Jews did not refer to the weekly Sabbath as 'an High Day', they made that reference only to the 7 annual Feasts of the Lord as commanded in Leviticus 23 which was the foundation of Mosaic Law
The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.- John 19:31
That verse makes clear that the Jews did not want the bodies to remain on the cross on the high Sabbath day (or First Day of Unleavened bread).
Jesus IS OUR PASSOVER (I Corinthians 5:7). He died ON PASSOVER the 14th of Nissan at 3 PM or the 9th hour - exactly as the Gospel accounts state. Hebrews under the blood of a lamb were spared death in Egypt and Christians are spared eternal death if we are under the Blood of the Lamb of God, which NEEDED to be spilled on Passover itself - which according to the scriptures in Leviticus was NOT an High Day - the 15th or the next day which began at sunset was.
If the temporal designation of Matthew 12:40 is taken literally, a conflict does exist between the time indicated in this verse and the time indicated in the accounts of the passion story.'
So you are saying that we should not take Jesus' words 'literally', because if we do - there is a conflict?
Sorry - the only conflict is the tradition of men that was grafted into the church to mandate a Friday crucifixion and a Sunday morning resurrection.
This is where Secularists and Atheists have a field day with Christians, illustrating them to believe in fairy tales that are not consistent with the book they claim to follow.
If we do not take Jesus' Words of three days AND three nights in the grave LITERALLY, then where is our faith that we should believe He is the Messiah?? Should we then not also take His promise of eternal Life if we Believe on Him as a metaphor and not a literal promise?
Such arguments have been made since the First century - and if three days and three nights are just figurative for a death, then as the secularists charge - the bible - especially the New Testament is a provable fraud.
It IS NOT A FRAUD, but it becomes one when traditions and agendas are read into the plain text of the Gospels and of scripture itself.