Replies

Have you done much translating? Honest question.
Part of the translation process is stating the text or in the case of idioms changing it to preserve meaning.
Most of those in the Aramic Middle East knew how to speak at least some Greek (rather than Latin which was less used). Why are you assuming that the speaker said cousins instead of brothers meaning literal siblings?

I DON'T assume that the speaker said cousins instead of brother, meaning literal siblings. What I said was that "brothers and sisters" was a term used for cousins because the word "cousin" didn't exist in ancient Aramaic.

I learned my Bible from priests. They were taught in the seminary about what the Bible teaches. Protestants ARE allowed to interpret the Bible as they like. There is no dictum as to what anything means. So if you want to interprest the word brother for cousin you can because Protestants can. Catholics are taught doctrine/dogma and that is not up for interpretation. Priests will tell you the same thing I did. I didn't make it up or get MY OWN interpretation of the Bible. Catholics don't do that.

I HAVE done translating from Spanish-English and vice versa but only on a need-to basis for friends and family. I realized that idioms are impossible to translate. I translate both the exact text AND the actual meaning, which often differ A LOT. It's hysterically funny sometimes.
e.g. The word elbow in Spanish is "codo." When someone pats his elbow and is speaking of someone else, he REALLY means that the other person is a cheapskate, as "codo" can also mean skinflint. It's an idiom.

Also I don't assume that the ancient Aramaic speakers knew ANY Greek unless they were merchants of some sort, mechants who dealt with people who traded for farther away than the village in the next valley. Aramaic is STILL spoken on ONE town in Syria but it's NOT the same Aramaic that Jesus spoke...language changes after 2000 years. Aramaic sounds like Arabic in many ways.

Greek was the language of the Greek conquerors. Then the Romans came. Why would Jewish peasants speak EITHER Greek or Latin? Why wouldn't they speak only Aramaic? Most were illiterate anyway. Education wasn't for the poor.