Why do you assume that ancient Greek had the word for cousin?
Besides, why would the translator CHANGE a meaning from "brother" to "cousin," just because Greek had the word and Aramaic didn't? A translator would have held to what the speaker said: brother.
If Jesus had brothers the brothers wouldn't have let their mother travel around following Jesus. The brothers would have been taking care of her all along. The brothers would have been at the Cross with their mother and brother.
Jesus had no brothers.
Where does it say that Jesus' family were non-believers? His cousin John the Baptist and his parents believed.
Why do you assume that ancient Greek had the word for cousin?
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Because I am fluent in Koine Greek. It isn’t just an assumption. The word is anepsios and used in other places in the New Testament.
Besides, why would the translator CHANGE a meaning from “brother” to “cousin,” just because Greek had the word and Aramaic didn’t? A translator would have held to what the speaker said: brother.
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Have you done much translating? Honest question.
Part of the translation process is stating the text or in the case of idioms changing it to preserve meaning.
Most of those in the Aramic Middle East knew how to speak at least some Greek (rather than Latin which was less used). Why are you assuming that the speaker said cousins instead of brothers meaning literal siblings?
If Jesus had brothers the brothers wouldn’t have let their mother travel around following Jesus. The brothers would have been taking care of her all along. The brothers would have been at the Cross with their mother and brother.
Jesus had no brothers. Where does it say that Jesus’ family were non-believers?
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John 7 states that his brothers did not believe. And you are assuming without evidence that they would have taken care of Mary or would have been at the cross (esp if they didn’t believe) or wouldn’t let her travel.
Have you ever tried to convince a Jewish mother to do something she didn’t want to do or to prevent her from something she did?