Sorry for the delay. (due to the above normal temps, I think I smashed more bugs in just this week, than in any full month of March in my life)
**Let’s just start with one question at a time.**
Why is the phrase ‘Son of God’ found many times in scripture, but the phrase ‘God the Son’ is found nowhere in scripture?
Thanks for showing interest in discussing this, xzins.
You realize, of course, how difficult it is to talk about why something that does not exist as opposed to something that does exist.
I am imagining that you are asking a "formula" question that is based on the Trinitarian formulation of God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.
Is that correct?
If so, then I believe that the answer simply has to do with the revolutionary aspect of the realization that Jesus is the exact representation of of the very being of God.
That was a huge understanding given to the first Christians, and the language evolved to accomodate the revelation.
But, we do see something close in Hebrews:
Heb 1: 8 But about the Son he says, "Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.