BTW,
I need a Greek scholar’s help with
John 10:35-37
King James Version (KJV)
JOHN 10:
35If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
37If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not.
Some . . . curious thought process sort on ATS is insisting that the verse is SAYING that Christ is saying that the person referred to blasphemed BECAUSE they said Christ was the Son of God! Absurd, I know but I need a Greek expert to help document how absurd it is.
However, read more context.
John 10:31-39 31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
33 The Jews answered him,“It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken— 36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me; 38 but if I do them,even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” 39 Again they sought to arrest him, but he escaped from their hands.
I think He's pointing out their hypocrisy in that they'll accept the *ye are gods* when it comes to talking about men but when someone actually comes along and claims to be God, they're ready to stone Him.
Jesus made it pretty clear who He was. How could He be accusing someone of blasphemy for stating what He had been telling them all along?