-—The word in the Scriptures is “assembly” and it is used to describe even the mob gathered in Ephesus.-—
Then “the assembly” must be “the pillar and foundation of truth.” That assembly would be worth finding.
Perhaps it is the Church that Christ founded, the one which we ignore at our peril. “If he fails to listen to the Church, treat him as a pagan or tax collector.” For Christ’s command to be meaningful, His Church must be visible and identifiable.
This is where we turn to history.
Regarding the papacy, what key did Jesus give to Peter?
And, from this the org builds a papacy? No wonder they have wandered from the pure Gospel of grace. We encourage you to abandon the chains of Rome and come into the light of Christ, alone...if you are permitted.
And what truth is that pillar and foundation to up hold?
Note scripture does not say it is to BUILD a foundation or a truth ..it says to uphold an existing truth and be a foundation for it..
So what truth is the church to uphold?
Interesting word study on the word church....
In 1 Timothy 3:15 “if I delay, you may know how one ought to behave in the household of God, which is the church of the living God, a pillar and buttress of the truth.” (ESV)
http://biblos.com/1_timothy/3-15.htm
The Greek word is ekklésia: an assembly, a (religious) congregation
http://concordances.org/greek/1577.htm
If Peter was the first Pope and could speak God's Word infallibly, why does history tell us this?:
Why just five verses after the verse you so love to misinterpret (Matthew 17: 17-19) does Jesus call the "Pope" Satan and an offense to Christ? (Matthew 17:23)
Why, if Peter is Pope, did the Church have the Jerusalem Council? Wouldn't Peter just tell them what's what? Seems like a wonderful missed opportunity to show Peter's preeminence.
Since history has established that James ran the show at the Jerusalem Counsel, did he usurp Peter's position? Why would impetulent Peter sit quietly by and allow it to happen?
If Peter is Pope, why did he deny Christ three times? Kind of messes up his infallibility.
If Peter is Pope, why did he allow Paul to publicly dress him down on a theological issue? Doesn't Paul know his place? Would a modern-day Pope allow a Bishop or Cardinal to do that today?
If Peter was the first Pope, why was Paul the one who wrote most of the New Testament books?
If Peter is the first Pope, why did he have trouble understanding some of Paul's writings? (2 Peter 3:15-16)
These hardly fill one with confidence that Peter was the appointed Vicar of Christ. He didn't act like he knew it or that his contemporary Church leaders did either.