David slept with Bathsheba -- already married to someone else. So because David is spoken so well of in Scripture -- even spoken well of in the book of Acts...will you go out on the same limb and say God didn't/doesn't count adultery as an "abomination" either?
See...you confuse the righteousness of the man with the reality that God's power and God's faithfulness can still work through a weak man!
Moses committed manslaughter. In effect, so did David. So are you going to justify manslaughter the way you're treating polygamy just because God continued to work through Moses and David?
(Silly Ravenwolf)
I also noted you didn't address my Hosea example. So a godly man whose wife is prostituting herself -- and the man remains married to the wife -- is not an "abomination," either in God's eyes because, hey, after all, Hosea is a prophet who gets his own book in the Bible???
...she did the same things that a wife would do...
And Bathsheba did the same things a "wife would do" with David...so what? (Adultery is now justified, too?) Wow! You're logic has been well-evacuated!
Furthermore...how many times did David sleep with Bathsheba while she was already married to someone else?
(You can't answer it, can you?)
Why is that relevant? Because we don't know if Bathsheba slept with David more than what caused her to become pregnant. And the same is true with Hagar and Abraham.
David sleeping with Bathsheba -- once or a few times -- didn't make Bathsheba David's wife anymore than Hagar sleeping with Abraham did.
If Hagar was a true "wife," why is Abraham still referencing her as "your slave" after he slept with her? (See Genesis 16:6)
Why does the Angel of the Lord reference her as a "slave of Sarai" in Gen. 16:8? Hasn't she been "promoted" from slave girl to "wife" by now?
(I suppose when we get to heaven, you can lecture the Angel of the Lord -- some of who say is the pre-incarnate Son of God -- about why He didn't pay Hagar more respect by acknowledging her upwardly mobile social status)
...she was given to him by Sarah...
Let's say, (if you weren't very ethical)...
...you and your wife hosted an illegal alien as your housekeeper (say, you told her that her very room and board was her "pay");
...And if her freedom was limited by no friends and no ID.
...And if your wife decided that she would give her housekeeper to you as your "wife" for a night...
...Tell, us, what "rights" do you think this housekeeper might feel she would have to say "no" to your wife?
So, even though she might feel she cannot say "no," in actuality, your wife would have no REAL authority to give her housekeeper to you. Sarai had no authority to give her slave away as a sexual bed partner or even as a wife; and part of that was because a slave cannot say "no" to whatever sexual arrangements are being established.
Jacob had two wifes and two concubines, the father had the right to give away his daughters
(Yeah, I can just imagine you going into your dark Bridal chambers in the Appalachian hills of the Hatfields and the McCoys...sleeping with a virgin who you think is your wife, only to emerge to find out it was her sister...and the shotgun-wielding father approaches you about having slept with his daughter...saying "Nobody's going to marry her now. She's yours." What covenants and "social arrangements" are you going to honor in that situation?)
(Silly Ravenwolf)
I also noted you didn’t address my Hosea example. So a godly man whose wife is prostituting herself — and the man remains married to the wife — is not an “abomination,” either in God’s eyes because, hey, after all, Hosea is a prophet who gets his own book in the Bible???
We could argue all day about it,and that is why God gave us the ten Commandments, so you can point me or i can point you to the actual commandment, you might point me to the one that says thou shall not commit adultry or i have a feeling i might point you to the one that says Remember the sabbath day, to keep it holy.