http://bible.cc/john/20-23.htm
Commentary further down the page.
Supposing that the RCC interpretation were correct (not that I believe it is) , for the sake of argument, where in Scripture was this ever practiced or where were instructions on how to practice this given?
Why would Jesus give to fallible, corruptible men that kind of unlimited power?
How does that fit in with Jesus instructions to pray only to the Father and that HE would hear and answer our prayer?
Why would God bind Himself to the decisions of men in regards to a person’s salvation?
Will have to reply later, I am done here for the night.
May you and all the others here have a blessed one.