thanks for the laugh, was it Shakespeare who said:
“full of sound and fury, signifying nothing”?
you could have saved yourself much time and effort by typing the word “no” to my question.
how come it took until the 16th century until “souls came to know of a truth things from God”?
seems odd to me.
It may seem odd, but that is your problem, as despite your premise that Romes AIM is necessary for assurance of doctrine, for centuries Rome failed to provide its infallible canon, as documented, and thus if you asked your question prior to then it would have been a promise, not a reality.
But again, while the church can speak infallible truth, it is not assuredly infallible according to Rome's formula and assurance that a statement is true is not by this, but truth claims will be established as being from God after the manner of “manifestation of the truth” that established men of God as being such, and writings as being Scripture, long before Rome presumed to be as God, and by such persuasion souls believed the gospel of Christ, (Acts 17:2,11; 28:23; Rm. 15:19, etc.) to the glory of God.