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To: Godzilla
That's why I said *in general*.

I think one of the areas of confusion is in the definitions of the terms of being filled with the Holy Spirit and being baptized in (or with) the Holy Spirit.

In the area I'm in, I keep hearing that THE evidence of the filling is speaking in tongues. I know of people who went forward for prayer for the filling of the Holy Spirit and the whole push on them was to speak in tongues.

But I will agree that there are too many who will accept ANY manifestation as being from the Holy Spirit when it is apparent that it isn't based upon scripture (ie 'barking').

I couldn't agree more.

21 posted on 11/09/2011 11:07:25 AM PST by metmom (For freedom Christ has set us free; stand firm therefore & do not submit again to a yoke of slavery)
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To: metmom
That's why I said *in general*.

:)

I think one of the areas of confusion is in the definitions of the terms of being filled with the Holy Spirit and being baptized in (or with) the Holy Spirit.

I can understand. My understanding is that through the work that the Holy Spirit accomplishes in salvation, the believer is 'filled' with the Spirit. however, in the NT, "to be filled" is often related to the 'baptism' of the Holy Spirit. I will state that the Holy Spirit never leaves the believer following salvation to 'come back' for the baptism, but that the baptism is an overwhelming experience of the already indwelling Spirit. Jesus seems to state that this is something separate, though following, salvation.

In the area I'm in, I keep hearing that THE evidence of the filling is speaking in tongues.

There is solid scriptural evidence for this. In the book of Act, every instance where the baptism of the Holy Spirit was made manifest, the individuals spoke in tongues. (ch 2; 10:44–48; 19:1–7). In another instance (8:14–20), something was manifested that showed the observers that something supernatural had occured. So it is the scriptural pattern for when this occurs to believers.

But the scripture is kinda silent on the baptism without at least the initial evidence of tongues (First Corinthians 12:30) and there is no evidence of what happened specifically to Paul other than we know later he did speak in tongues.

I couldn't agree more.

Indeed, Paul in 1 Cor indicated that there be an order to the expression of the charismatic gifts in public worship and that those expressions are to be closely examined/judged. Some today have forgotten that and excesses have occured.

23 posted on 11/09/2011 12:04:38 PM PST by Godzilla (3/7/77)
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