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To: CynicalBear; metmom; Judith Anne; smvoice; boatbums; RnMomof7; dartuser; bibletruth; Vegasrugrat; ..

kudos to CB for effort, results are another matter.
let’s see how he did:

1. not even tried, everyone knows no one was ever told to be baptized for “obedience” reasons. anyone claiming this has no clue what baptism is. ( i don’t care what baptist seminary they have a degree from )
2. not only doesn’t romans 6:5 not say baptism is an outward sign of the work completed by the Holy Spirit already, just two verses earlier in romans 6:3, Paul tells us those anyone BAPTIZED into Christ Jesus is BAPTIZED into his death.
so baptism is not an outward sign of something that has happened already.
3. the verses provided are not of anyone being told to say a sinners prayer for the remission of sins. Acts 2:38 and 22:16 clearly teach BAPTISM is for the remission of sins, not a “sinners prayer”
what did Luke mean in Acts 2:21 to call on the name of the Lord? see Acts 22:16 for the answer.
4. philippians 3:8 does not say we are placed “in Christ” by faith. Paul is clear in romans and galatians that we are BAPTIZED into Christ. in philippians, it is righteousness based on faith, not faith placing us in Christ.
5. acts 22:16 tells us how Paul received remission of his sins, “rise and be BAPTIZED and wash away your sins, calling on his name”
6. 1 Peter specifically says BAPTISM now saves you. of course we are saved by grace, how do we receive the grace of God? the Scriptures are clear, thru BAPTISM.
7. Acts 2:38 is clear about what the people had to do: repent and be BAPTIZED for the remission of sins and receiving the Holy Spirit.
Acts 10 is very interesting. it says the Holy Spirit fell on them as Peter spoke. it does not say the people accepted Christ as Savior and then were baptized by the Holy Spirit. clearly the Holy Spirit falling on them did not mean they were saved, it was merely to show Peter salvation was for the Gentiles as well as the Jews. once Peter realized they accepted His message concerning Jesus and who He was, he ordered they be BAPTIZED.
8. again no scriptures are provided where the Bible says “water baptism” or “spirit baptism”. no, the Bible only calls the sacrament, “baptism”.
why? because there are not seperate “water” and “spirit” baptisms, no as Paul tells us in Ephesians, there is only ONE BAPTISM.

in summary, we can see from the Scriptures that what the One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church has taught about bpatism has been true for 2,000 years.


321 posted on 11/06/2011 3:15:27 PM PST by one Lord one faith one baptism
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism
>>1. not even tried, everyone knows no one was ever told to be baptized for “obedience” reasons. anyone claiming this has no clue what baptism is. ( i don’t care what baptist seminary they have a degree from )<<

You don’t read all posts to you? Number one was much earlier by itself. And surely you didn’t expect that I would think that you would see that those questions were answered do you? I knew full well you would deny.

322 posted on 11/06/2011 3:24:17 PM PST by CynicalBear
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To: one Lord one faith one baptism; metmom; bibletruth; boatbums; RnMomof7
Wrong.

"But Now" is yer Waterloo, Napoleon. You've worked very hard to "prove" a point of "Time Past" and if you were Israel and part of the Kingdom promises, I would say KUDOS to you. But alas. You're a mere neither Jew nor Gentile, dead in your sins, who is working hard to find salvation in the Jewish Kingdom. Rejecting the gospel of your salvation for the gospel for the Nation Israel. "Dispensational Envy" is an effort in futility. And a complete waste of time. Since you cannot go back to "time past". And you cannot go forward to the "ages to come". It's "But Now" or nothing.

Ephesians 2:11-13. And 2 Tim. 2:15.

323 posted on 11/06/2011 3:43:47 PM PST by smvoice (Who the *#@! is Ivo of Chatre & why am I being accused of not linking to his quote?)
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