To: marshmallow
Okay, FReepers, I'm trying to learn something here about writing; this author wrote:
"Now it is in book form (Yale, £14.99), and very well it reads.My question is why say that instead of 'it reads very well'? It just seems so awkward and obtuse. I am interested in your thoughts or guidance.
2 posted on
10/31/2011 11:57:47 AM PDT by
2nd Bn, 11th Mar
(The "p" in Democrat stands for patriotism.)
To: 2nd Bn, 11th Mar
“’...very well it reads’
‘It just seems so awkward and obtuse’”
Are you calling Yoda obtuse? Because he was the wisest thing in the universe. He could be awkward, I admit, but I think that was on purpose.
3 posted on
10/31/2011 12:11:32 PM PDT by
Tublecane
To: 2nd Bn, 11th Mar
It's Yoda-speak.
Actually, it's passive-speak which is often employed by the British for use in maintaining an understated tone. Not used as much in the US because we're impetuous, arrogant Yanks.
To: 2nd Bn, 11th Mar
5 posted on
10/31/2011 12:13:04 PM PDT by
Vide
To: 2nd Bn, 11th Mar
Hmm. I noticed that as well, but thought it may be a peculiarity of British English composition. I don't see anything wrong with it, and it does stand out compared to “it reads very well.” Perhaps the writer wanted to place more emphasis on the “it” part of the phrase, as if to make the book stand out. It does seem a bit more emphatic when written like this.
6 posted on
10/31/2011 12:14:21 PM PDT by
Crolis
("To have a right to do a thing is not at all the same as to be right in doing it." -GKC)
To: 2nd Bn, 11th Mar
Having gone to St. Leo's grade school
and having a British born mother, it makes perfect sense to me.
Passive and understated, indeed. LOL
To: 2nd Bn, 11th Mar
And he was born on the Marine Corps birthday.
It’s a hat trick for me, by gum!
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