Actually that is YOUR flaw. For the three passages you obliquely cited - ALL were to Gentile believers, except possibly James. Those GENTILE believers would not relate to Hebrew or even aramaic but DID relate to the common language of the day -Greek. Further, there is no evidence that Romans or Galations or James were origionally written in Hebrew. So you are stuck Patlin.
Fact of the matter is - when you compare the Greek to the Hebrew for 'believed', you've plainly proved they are two different concepts altogether. Therefore it is a fallacy to try to equate apples to rocks in this manner.
One can not properly interpret the writings of 1st century writers without at least some knowledge of the history, customs & idioms from unbiased sources. . .
. . . Temple Institute . . .
With all due respect - the Temple Institute cannot be considered an unbiased source - since they focus strictly upon Judaism and reject Christianity. Hence there is GREAT religious bias shown. Since we are dealing with the NT - these are writings of Christianity patlin. Every bit of evidence points to them being written in Greek.
The Torah brought back from Babylon by the house of Judah when they returned and which was the Torah used to read from in the synagogues from Moses seat was not written in Greek.
Have that LXX problem patlin. The LXX appears to be the source for the substantial majority of NT quotes of the OT (85-95%). Among the DSS, the LXX included finding key sections of LXX translations of Exodus, Leviticus and Deuteronomy. I'm sure this will set of an large posting railing against the LXX - but then its there present in history and the writings of the Jews.
I do not know which post you are referring to, but much to your dismay, Romans was not sent to pagan gentiles, it was sent to out of covenant house of Isra;el that had become as gentiles as was prophesied. Or did you miss the fact that there were Jewish synagogues in Rome. At least 10% of the Roman population was Jewish. Ephesians - mostly out of covenant house of Isra’el. The Galatians are still up in the air but the fact remains, those who heard the word were already going to Jewish synagogues on the Sabbath; not pagan churches.
Luke 2:41 Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the Feast of the Passover. 42And when he was twelve years old, they went up according to custom. 43And when the feast was ended, as they were returning, the boy Jesus stayed behind in Jerusalem. His parents did not know it, 44but supposing him to be in the group they went a day’s journey, but then they began to search for him among their relatives and acquaintances, 45and when they did not find him, they returned to Jerusalem, searching for him. 46After three days they found him in the temple, sitting among the teachers, listening to them and asking them questions. 47And all who heard him were amazed at his understanding and his answers. 48And when his parents[f] saw him, they were astonished. And his mother said to him, “Son, why have you treated us so? Behold, your father and I have been searching for you in great distress.” 49And he said to them, “Why were you looking for me? Did you not know that I must be in my Father’s house?”
Luke 4:16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up. And as was his custom, he went to the synagogue on the Sabbath day
Paul following the practices & customs of Yah’shua
Acts 17:2 And Paul went in, as was his custom, and on three Sabbath days he reasoned with them from the Scriptures
when you compare the Greek to the Hebrew for ‘believed’, you've plainly proved they are two different concepts altogether
Of course there is different concepts as with all languages a single word can have several different meanings. That is why it is important to find in the word in the Septuagint, then take it back to its Hebrew origin in order to discern which meaning they were using.
the Temple Institute cannot be considered an unbiased source
And thus the antisemitism born out of pagan Greek christians continues. For you to claim that the house of Judah never preserved at all times a copy of the Tanakh in Hebrew without bias & without respect to YHVH only shows your bias to those YHVH chose to preserve HIS WORD. To say that the Son of the Father did not know & preach His Father's language in all the synagogues HE went into as was His custom a rejection of our Jewish Messiah Yah'shua in and of itself.
And thus the goal of haSatan...to remove, as far as he can, YHVH’s children from their native language in order to promulgate his lies & miracles under the guise of truth.
Zephaniah 3[The Conversion of the Nations] 9 "For at that time I will change the speech of the peoples to a pure speech
YHVH gave HIS Torah in Hebrew, it is the language HE chose for HIS House. We will not be speaking Greek in the millennial kingdom.