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Consider also that in the NT, Mary and only Mary is called “Woman”, something John would have known well.

I find it interesting that in the first and last book of the Bible we find the woman. And again, only Mary is ever called woman. It’s not a coincidence

Really?

MATTHEW 15:28 Then Jesus answered her, "O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire." And her daughter was healed instantly.

Luke 13
11 And there was a woman who had had a spirit of infirmity for eighteen years; she was bent over and could not fully straighten herself.

12 And when Jesus saw her, he called her and said to her, "Woman, you are freed from your infirmity."

JOHN 4:21 Jesus said to her, "Woman, believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father.

John 20
13] They said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping?" She said to them, "Because they have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid him."

15 Jesus said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping? Whom do you seek?" Supposing him to be the gardener, she said to him, "Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away."