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To: smvoice
It is a question designed to make a Catholic THINK logically without just accepting something because someone declared themselves "infallible" in order to declare "infallible" doctrines and traditions as truth.

I have rarely felt so patronized. And it is remarkable because there is no reason that Mary's immaculate conception would require her to be present in the Eucharist.

The Eucharist is, we hold, the body of Christ. You are a member of that body. So is Mary. So am I. We are in the Eucharist as I said, because we are in Christ.

Could you explain why you think that Immaculate conception necesarily means that one would be in the Eucharist?

1,146 posted on 09/06/2011 11:11:46 AM PDT by Mad Dawg (Oh Mary, conceived without sin, pray for us who have recourse to thee.)
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To: Mad Dawg

Rarely have I felt so deceived. We are not told that the Eucharist is the Spriritual Body of Christ that we believers belong to. We are told that it is the ACTUAL BODY AND BLOOD OF CHRIST. You wouldn’t be playing some semantics games now would you? And yes, Mary’s immaculate conception would require her to be present in the Eucharist. If He was part of her body, He contained part of her DNA, and that DNA is part of His Body. So when His body is turned from wafers and wine into THE ACTUAL BODY AND BLOOD of Christ, as your Mass teaches and believes, then Mary’s part of that ACTUAL BODY AND BLOOD OF CHRIST would HAVE TO BE PRESENT. Otherwise, He is not COMPLETELY there.


1,164 posted on 09/06/2011 11:27:42 AM PDT by smvoice (The Cross was NOT God's Plan B.)
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