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To: armydoc
Perhaps to clear up the misconception, you could direct us to a definitive list of infallible papal statements and teachings?

Why would a definitive list of infallible papal teachings be required to clear up the misconception that infallibility, which protects only teachings (and only some of those) is the same thing as impeccability (sinlessness, which would include setting a perfect example in one's personal behavior, etc.)?

Understanding that one's teaching and one's personal behavior aren't the same thing is not rocket science. Our Lord mentions the concept in Scripture in relation to the Pharisees. I'm sure you're familiar with the passage.

Vatican I, in the decree Pastor Aeternus, set forth 4 conditions for a Papal statement to be infallible:

  1. The Pope had to be speaking in his supreme Apostolic authority, not as, e.g., a private doctor or as the bishop of Rome.
  2. The teaching had to be addressed to the whole church. A private letter, or a decree disciplining a specific individual, doesn't qualify.
  3. The teaching had teach definitively, not speculatively, some proposition to be held firmly by all the faithful.
  4. Finally, the subject of the teaching has to be a matter of faith or morals.
Beyond that, theologians can argue about which statements are and aren't infallible, but it's an academic argument unless and until the teaching changes. Infallible teachings don't, fallible ones might.
46 posted on 08/03/2011 12:51:35 AM PDT by Campion ("Fallacies do not cease to be fallacies when they become fashions." -- GKC)
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To: Campion

Is it possible for a Pope to infallibly make a pronouncement to inform the faithful which statements of his predecessors meet all 4 conditions you outlined?


49 posted on 08/03/2011 6:45:21 AM PDT by SeekAndFind (u)
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