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To: SeekAndFind

This is a long debate which I don’t want to get into. This issue is settled with me and for most everyone on the other side as well. I’ll tell you some of the things I know and if you’re really interested in coming at the truth you’ll find your way to it.

Regardless of what those versions say about this subject:
A) The attitude which states “how the Bible says what it says is irrelevant.” Easily evolved into “what the Bible says is irrelevant.”
B) What those version change and leave out in some places causes an overall want of truth and want of power within those movements who adopt them and to all Christianity.
C) The very existence of those versions casts doubt on the infallibility and importance of God’s Word.

All three, there are more, lead us to where we are now: “Standards don’t matter, sin doesn’t matter, Satan is not trying to corrupt us through media, music doesn’t matter, soteriology doesn’t matter, what the Bible says doesn’t matter.”

“We, as a society can change what the Bible says to fit with the times.” Satan’s thesis statement which is shared by all of the translators of the new versions.


26 posted on 07/18/2011 11:52:42 AM PDT by demshateGod (The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God.)
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To: demshateGod

RE: A) The attitude which states “how the Bible says what it says is irrelevant.” Easily evolved into “what the Bible says is irrelevant.”

I don’t see how that follows. I’ve read both King James and NIV and I don’t see ANY difference in what translations say about Homosexuality.

If someone does not want to obey scripture, he/she won’t regardless of which translation is presented.

RE: B) What those version change and leave out in some places causes an overall want of truth and want of power within those movements who adopt them and to all Christianity.

But how do you know that these later version CHANGE or LEAVE out things? Could it not be that we have more manuscripts today and as a result of our comparing manuscript with manuscript the later translations actually CLARIFY things?

What major doctrine is affected by the omission of a word for instance that has not been clarified by other verses?

I don’t see how ANY major doctrine of Christianity has been compromised by the NIV or the NKJV at all.

RE: C)The very existence of those versions casts doubt on the infallibility and importance of God’s Word.

Why should they? If any, they are wonderful testimony to the PRESERVATION of God’s word and His Providence in making His word inteligible to people who speak modern English.


34 posted on 07/18/2011 1:31:36 PM PDT by SeekAndFind (u)
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