Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: Dr. Brian Kopp

Your post attempts to make your point by twisting the way people actually use language. Again, what sacred cow are you trying to protect with such intellectual gymnastics?

The only reason someone would use the “till” as you use it would be to trick the listener into assuming what, in fact, a reasonable person would assume.

What would your response be to a 30 year old person who says “I didn’t rape women until I was 20?” What would be the reason for wording it that way?


61 posted on 05/31/2011 1:05:17 PM PDT by RobRoy (The US today: Revelation 18:4)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 44 | View Replies ]


To: RobRoy

Or “did you stop beating your wife?” Lol!
Better not respond to that with a yes or no answer.


62 posted on 05/31/2011 1:07:53 PM PDT by christianhomeschoolmommaof3
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 61 | View Replies ]

To: RobRoy

You realize that Greek and English are different languages, yes?


65 posted on 05/31/2011 1:09:31 PM PDT by wideawake
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 61 | View Replies ]

To: RobRoy; christianhomeschoolmommaof3; FiddlePig
Your post attempts to make your point by twisting the way people actually use language.

The bible was not written in English, despite the idea on this thread that "If the KJV was good enough for Peter and Paul, then its good enough for me!"

Its pointless to rehash old arguments, so I'll just cut and paste

The problem with this understanding is that it forces a modern English use of until on the Bible. In the Bible the Greek and Hebrew words for until means only that some action did not happen to a certain point. Scholars are in agreement on this point. For example, Dr. William Hendriksen, the former Professor of New Testament Literature at Calvin Seminary in Grand Rapids, Michigan writes: "This conclusion cannot be based merely upon the negative plus "until." That wording does not always introduce an event (in this case: she gave birth to a son) whereby the earlier situation (the couple had no sexual relations) is reversed (they now begin to have sexual relations)." From The Gospel of Matthew, p. 144.

Consider this quotation from Samuel: "And so Saul's daughter Michal was childless until the day of her death (2 Sam 6:23)." Are we to conclude that she bore children after her death? How about the raven released from the ark? We read that the raven "flew back and forth until the waters dried off from the earth (Gn 8:7)." Does that mean the raven returned? Other examples can be seen in Dt 34:6; 1 Macc 5:54 and Ps 109:1 [RSV 110:1].

And of course, for those so ignorant of scripture as to have forgotten the bolded excerpt from Samuel above, I'll repost that old truism I posted above yet once more:

My aunt in Chicago voted Republican TILL the day she died. She has voted Democrat ever since.

Scripture itself proves "TILL" means nothing in regard to Mary's Perpetual Virginity, unless you want to argue that Saul's daughter Michal, who was childless until the day of her death, had children after her death.

69 posted on 05/31/2011 1:13:40 PM PDT by Brian Kopp DPM
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 61 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson