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To: bibletruth

Because no passage of Scripture ever had dual meanings did it? Passages only mean one thing and one thing alone, do they?

I marvel at this logic....I am supposed to read this chapter about a *woman giving birth to the Redeemer* and not once—NOT EVER—think of Our Lady Mary.

Stuff and nonsense. As if St. John was that stupid of a writer.


39 posted on 05/20/2011 1:40:02 PM PDT by Claud
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To: Claud
Of course only a fool would deny that it was not that very Jewish women named Mary, who was given the privilege to give birth to the humanity of Jesus. I do not deny it.

But not once - NOT EVER - does the Bible refer to Mary as Capital -O- Our; Capital -L- Lady; Mary. NOT EVER does the Bible ever deify Mary with capital letters, which are reserved alone for God, Christ, Holy Spirit, Holy Ghost, Godhead, which designate deity. Mary is not deity, so stop capitalizing adjectives and pronouns before Mary's name: for that clearly makes here out to be reserved as deity. Read English grammar is you don't believe either God or me on this matter.

46 posted on 05/20/2011 2:46:01 PM PDT by bibletruth
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