Jerome learned Hebrew in order to translate the OT books for the Latin vulgate after living among the jews he learned the jews did not accept the apocrypha as inspired canon.So when he put together his Latin bible he did not include them in the inspired canon..he placed them in a separate section for readings .
All scripture is written by prophets.. yet in the book of Maccabees the author is clear saying there were no prophets in the land.. also Maccabees like the other apocrypha is not Christocentric ... all the hebrew books were given to the Jews to point to Christ.. yet these greek books lack that quality ...Christ is not found in them as he is in the hebrew bible..
These books contains many errors and contradictions ...God does not author contradictions and error.. He tells us clearly that if a prophet errors then he is no prophet ... so we must draw from that "scripture " that contains errors is not written by a prophet and it is not inspired..
But I think most to the point.. Rome had NO AUTHORITY to determine a canon of the OT ..God tells us plainly that the books were written by Hebrews for hebrews.. They reveal Gods prophetic words to reveal the messiah TO THEM...They are called the oracles of God in this regard..
The OT was written by them and placed in their care..not Rome's
I suppose you would have us believe that Judaism has a central authority that formally declared a canon. That is simply not true. You presume that Palestinian Jews were the only Jews, but there were vibrant, autonomous Jewish communities from Ethiopia to China and Malaysia most recognizing the Septuagint along with a number of other lost books.
Where do you guys get this bit about how Jerome “put them in a separate book for reading”?
That’s simple nonsense!
Where is the indication by Jerome that he didn’t accept them?