How could there have been "a COMPLETE apostasy" if Christ stated that the gates of Hades would not prevail against His church and that where two or more gathered in His name, He would be there?
Organized religion (Mormons, Presby's, Catholics, etc.) is the thing that you appear to be stuck on.
What mormonism teaches is that Christ's church fell into apostasy. That is saying that Christ deliberately lied, which any Christian knows is not possible.
The purpose and result of the Council of Nicea has been explained to you in the past.
Yup.
In fact, Mormons thereby portray both Jesus Christ and the apostle Paul as false prophets.
Here's the specifics as to why the Mormons label Jesus & Paul as lying false prophets.
Jesus:
18And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. (Matt. 16:18)
Did these gates prevail for 1500-1800 years per Mormonism? (Ya better believe it!)
Paul:
21Unto him be glory IN THE CHURCH by Christ Jesus THROUGHOUT ALL AGE, WORLD WITHOUT END. Amen. (Eph. 3:21)
Tell us Resty. Tell us Mormons. Go ahead. Prove Eph. 3:21 false. Tell us exactly how Christ was able to provide glory to God "in the church...throughout all age, world without end" if it was in such apostasy?
Go ahead, Resty. Go ahead Mormons. Take some scissors and slice Eph. 3:21 out of your Bible if you don't believe it.
Otherwise, you have Mormons, yet again, trying to speak out of both sides of their mouth! (Which they've become WAY too good at in their p.r. ploys)
waiting...
How could there have been “a COMPLETE apostasy” if Christ stated that the gates of Hades would not prevail against His church and that where two or more gathered in His name, He would be there?