Replies

>> Then, how was the curse of Adam circumvented in Mary’s lineage? <<

God said so?

>> And, are you saying that contact with sinners would’ve made Christ unholy? <<

No, I’m saying that to be born of an impure person would have offended Christ’s divinity.

Jesus had a little more than contact with Mary. He became flesh of her flesh and blood of her blood. You do know that a baby shares its mother’s very blood, don’t you? Any impurity in the mother’s blood passes to the baby, which is why mothers can’t drink and even have to very careful which medications they take.

Now, Jesus certainly was greatly mistreated during his life. But that was PERMITTED by God, not COMMITTED by God. It was evil that he was mistreated, and God cannot perform evil.

Your theology is as wrong as your biology. The baby does NOT share the mother's blood.

While nutrients and waste pass through the placenta and umbilical cord, blood is NOT shared.

Sin is not a disease or a physical contaminant that can contaminate the baby physically.

If this was the case, hwo did Mary ever get to be conceived without sin born of a human mother and father who were apparently also sinful? Or were they sinless as well?

If Mary had to be sinless to carry the sinless savior, didn't Mary's mother need to be sinless to carry a sinless Mary? Mary had more than a little contact with her mother in utero, you know. By your reasoning, Mary's mother would have also had to be sinless so that she could be born sinless.

"You do know that a baby shares its mother’s very blood, don’t you?"

"Take heed to yourselves, and to the whole flock, wherein the Holy Ghost hath placed you bishops, to rule the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood." - Act 20:28 (Douay-Rheims)

Christ's blood was God's blood.

>> Then, how was the curse of Adam circumvented in Mary’s lineage?<<<

God said so?

Show me where God said so.

No, I’m saying that to be born of an impure person would have offended Christ’s divinity.

God is not offended by man.

Philippians 2:5-10 5 Have this mind among yourselves, which is yours in Christ Jesus, 6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7but made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men. 8And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9 Therefore God has highly exalted him and bestowed on him the name that is above every name, 10so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

No, I’m saying that to be born of an impure person would have offended Christ’s divinity. Jesus had a little more than contact with Mary. He became flesh of her flesh and blood of her blood. You do know that a baby shares its mother’s very blood, don’t you? Any impurity in the mother’s blood passes to the baby, which is why mothers can’t drink and even have to very careful which medications they take. Now, Jesus certainly was greatly mistreated during his life. But that was PERMITTED by God, not COMMITTED by God. It was evil that he was mistreated, and God cannot perform evil.

The 'pure' part of Mary was she was a virgin, as was required and prophecy fulfilled. Christ preached the Words Moses penned, so why not venerate, honor and pray to Noah, as it is Written that Noah was Genesis 6:9 THESE are THE GENERATIONS OF NOAH: Noah was a 'just' man and 'perfect' in his generations, and Noah walked with God. OR Abraham, Genesis 22:11-18. Or how about all those predestined to pen the Holy Word. Christians no more worship, venerate or pray to these 'saints' than they should to Mary. These that came before certainly accepted salvation some time before Mary departed her flesh body and entered the pearly gates. Wonder who was stationed at the pearly gates before Peter and received all those that entered before he returned to our Maker?