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To: DARCPRYNCE
"Doesn’t that mean that someone who may never have even heard of Jesus will necessarily be excluded from God’s kingdom in spite of their own free will?"

How do you knkow that God never arevealed the Gospel to that person because he knew they either (a) wouldn't accept it or (b) are not of the elect.

51 posted on 02/18/2011 4:18:10 AM PST by circlecity
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To: circlecity

“How do you knkow that God never arevealed the Gospel to that person because he knew they either (a) wouldn’t accept it or (b) are not of the elect.”

In the first place, I don’t KNOW, but are you suggesting that God has imbued certain people with knowledge of his word (as written in the Bible) that he didn’t imbue the rest of us with? After all, if God wanted us all to just know his word, why would he bother inspiring certain people to write the Bible in the first place?

Secondly, if God knows who will and who will not accept his word at the onset, what reason could he have for allowing some non-believers to read or hear them, while denying others that privilege?

Correct me if I’m wrong, but the concept of free will is based upon the premise that we are free to act, as we see fit, on the knowledge we’ve gained. If we are denied certain knowledge, how can we freely choose to accept or deny it?


54 posted on 03/06/2011 3:36:41 PM PST by DARCPRYNCE
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