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To: Mrs. Don-o
What????

vile affections...

men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."

Stop wasting our time.

76 posted on 02/12/2011 7:07:04 PM PST by fortheDeclaration (When the wicked beareth rule, the people mourn (Pr.29:2))
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To: fortheDeclaration
"What???? ... vile affections... men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet."... Stop wasting our time."

You are misreading my intentions. I don't need any further evidence that homosexual practices are sinful: I am already thoroughly convinced. I brought up the subject because there there are many influential people out there (for instance at Gay Christian 101 --- take a look and you'll be dumbfounded) who hold themselves out as serious Christians of the sola-scriptura variety, who argue based on the words of scripture that not all homosexual relations are "vile" or "unseemly." They concede that some are vile and unseemly (e.g. rape, pedophilia and prostitution) but assert that others are not (e.g. gay marriage).

They look at this verse, for instance, Hebrews 13:4

Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.

..and they say, "OK, so marriage is honorable for gay couples, and "marital" gay behavior is undefiled; and at the same time, we also condemn whoring and adultery."

They're wrong, I'm convinced; but as long as one appeals to scripture only, without any further interpretive authority, such errors will proliferate.

It's happened before: all Christian history considered that Onan's sin, the sin of contraception, was an obviously unnatural act and a very grave error, through the past 20 centuries --- until recently. In the past 100 years, most churches changed their interpretation of that.

It happens because the Bible is not a self-interpreting text. The argument proceeds in a very unsatifactory manner--- much like the argument on this thread over wine vs grape juice ---- because people are parsing it out erroneously, without a "referee" to rule some interpretations out of bounds.

104 posted on 02/13/2011 11:19:29 AM PST by Mrs. Don-o (In theory. there's no difference between theory and practice. But in practice, there is. -Yogi Berra)
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