[topcat54]

The salvation of mankind through the incarnation was depndent on Mary’s fiat because God would not have forced her assent.

Not exactly. In the Roman system Mary was immaculately conceived, that is she was free from the taint of sin. And she was free from actual sin. The way Rome paints the picture she was effectively incapable of sin. So, to resist God's will would be sin. Ultimately her “choice,” which was no real choice at all, was entirely dependent upon God's sovereignty in her immaculate conception.

Or so the story goes.

[lastchance]

Much more able scholars than I have debated the role of the Sovereignty of God in the free will of mankind (not just the Virgin Mary) so I will leave it say only that God knew Mary would assent because He is Eternal and is not bound to any of our concepts in time but that Mary herself did not have the foreknowledge that she would say yes. So her act of assent was freely given since it was not a forced consent and because she made it in obedience to God’s command. Not because she believed it would fullfill the grace God had bestowed on her in her immaculate conception.

I hope we can agree that the Virgin was a humble servant of God whom she declared her Savior.

[RnMomof7]

Not exactly. In the Roman system Mary was immaculately conceived, that is she was free from the taint of sin. And she was free from actual sin. The way Rome paints the picture she was effectively incapable of sin. So, to resist God's will would be sin. Ultimately her “choice,” which was no real choice at all, was entirely dependent upon God's sovereignty in her immaculate conception.

AHHHHH Excellent observation.. her choice was no choice !!!!!

One wonders if she could have said no if God would have removed that sinless birth???