In the West nearly any person who could read could read the Vulgate Bible, since for most of the period Vulgate Latin was the only written language in Western Europe. The first appearances of proto-French and proto-German were in the Treaty of Verdun, written for Charlemagne's grandsons. There was no significant literature in these languages, or Anglo-Saxon or Welsh for well into the second millennium AD. At that time Italian WAS Vulgate Latin and Spain was essentially an islamic country. The problem was the absence of libraries and the high cost of buying a bible, since it involved thousands of hours of hand copying, not something your average shopkeeper could afford.
There were ‘English’ translations of part of the scripture long prior to Wycliffe. Since part COULD be translated, and WAS, what prevented the Catholic Church from translating ALL of it?
How did the Apostles know scripture, when many clergy of the 1300s did not?
And since the Church wouldn’t allow the common person to learn latin it made it a tad difficult.