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Almost all christians will blanketly state that anything attributed to Paul or his contemporaries (Luke) is valid because he quotes the "Old Testament".

This is not true. Paul utilizes Torah/Tanakh scripture for his needs, misquoting everything either by not saying the scripture word for word (as would be provided by divine inspiration) and he rarely utilizes Torah/Tanakh scripture in it's proper context.

Paul made The Word his own, changing YHWH's divine Word and utilizing it for his own needs, corrupting it as he went.

In "Holy Scripture in the Qumran Commentaries and Pauline Letters" Prof. Timothy H. Lim he states:
that, although Paul shows that he had no problem using different forms of the same text, e.g., Isa 40:13 in 1 Cor 2:16 and Rom 11:34, it is now uncertain to what extent he altered texts and to what extent he used existing, differing texts. Also, he claims, it is not possible to say that Paul used primarily Septuagintal biblical texts. Texts should not be referred to as "Septuagintal" simply because the same words are found in one of the editions of the Greek Jewish scriptures.

In the end this all boils down to several things:
1. Did Y'shua or any of the original 12 Disciples ever alter YHWH's Word for their own benefit? 2. Did Y'shua or any of the original 12 Disciples ever state alteration of YHWH's Word was to be allowed?
The answer to those 2 questions will not matter to some one who is a dispensationalist, supersessionist, nomianist, or paulinist. However, to those who want to follow the true Son of Man and "do all the words which He has commanded us forever" the answer should be blatantly obvious.

Blatant perversions and corruption of "OT"/"NT" scripture by Paul:

“And again, the Lord knows the thoughts of the wise, that they are vain" l Cor. 3:20

Paul misquoted Psalm 94:11 "The Lord knoweth the thoughts of man, that they are vanity".

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"And again, Isaiah saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles; in him shall the Gentiles trust" Rom. 15:12

Paul misquoted Isa. 11:10
"And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the Gentiles seek.

Isaiah does not say he shall reign or rule over the Gentiles Isaiah refers to "it" not "him." This seems to be a trick taught by Paul which Christians have learned well and they apply it to the Comforter.

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"But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him" 1 Cor. 2:9

Paul misquoted Isa. 64:4
"From of old no one has heard or perceived by the ear, no eye has seen a God besides thee, who works for those who wait for him".

Nowhere in Isa. 64:4 does it say, "neither have entered into the heart of man." Paul states, "the things which God hath prepared for them that love him." Yet, Isaiah 64:4 does not state or even imply that there will be a future reward for those that love God. It merely states that God will work for those who wait for him. Paul also omits, "no eye has seen a God besides thee,

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"Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men" Eph. 4:8

Paul misquoted Psalm 68:18

"Thou hast ascended on high, thou hast led captivity captive: thou hast received gifts for men."

Psalm 68:18 says "received gifts" not "gave gifts." It also says "thou" not "he." Jesus never led captivity captive, led others to a high mount, or gave gifts unto men. There is a big difference between "giving gifts to men" and "receiving gifts for men."

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"…as it is written, that thou might be justified in thy sayings, and might overcome when thou art judged" Rom. 3:4

Paul misquoted Psalm 51:4

"…that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest". Psalm 51:4 says "judgest" not "art judged." Psalm 51:4 also says "and be clear" or "blameless," not "and mightest overcome" or "prevail."

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"But as it is written, To whom he was not spoken of, they shall see: and they that have not heard shall understand" Rom. 15:21

Paul misquoted and misapplied Isa. 52:15

"…the kings shall shut their mouths at him: for that which had not been told them shall they see; and that which they have not heard shall they consider".

Isaiah 52:15 says nothing about "he was not spoken of"; it says "that which had not been told them." It says "that," not "he." "They that have not heard shall understand" is not the same as "that which they have not heard shall they consider."

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"Then said I, Lo I come [in the volume of the book it is written of me] to do thy will, O God" Heb. 10:7

Paul distorted Psalm 40:7-8
"Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book it is written of me. I delight to do thy will, O my God: yea, thy law is within my heart".
He left out the last phrase ("thy law is within my heart") which shows God's will is the law.

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"…then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. O death, where is thy sting? O grave where is thy victory?. 1 Cor. 15:54-55

Paul misquoted Isa. 25:8

"He will swallow up death forever"

and
Hosea 13:14

"…O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will be thy destruction".

Isaiah says death will be swallowed up "forever" not "in victory."
Hosea says "thy plagues" not "thy sting."
"Hosea was not written in interrogatory form.
Hosea says "thy destruction" not "thy victory." It is difficult to see how Paul's words could be accurately derived from Isaiah and Hosea.

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"…ye might receive thy promise. For yet a little while, and he that shall come will come, and will not tarry" Heb. 10:36-37

Paul perverted Hab. 2:3

"For the vision is yet for an appointed time, but at the end it shall speak, and not lie: though it tarry, wait for it; because it will surely come, it will not tarry".

Habbakuk says nothing about "he." The "it" in the verse is a vision, not Jesus. Hab. is referring to the maturation of a vision he has. The "it" referred to has nothing to do with the arrival of any individual.
Where in the OT, esp. Hab., did God promise "he will come and not tarry?"

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"Let their table be made a snare, and a trap and a stumbling block, and a recompense unto them: let their eyes be darkened, that they may not see, and bow down their back always" Rom. 11:9-10

Paul misstated Psalm 69:22-23
"Let their table become a snare before them: and that which should have been for their welfare, let it become a trap. Let their eyes be darkened, that they see not; and make their loins continually to shake".

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"And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Zion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob, For this is the covenant unto them when I shall take away their sins" Rom. 11:26-27

Paul misquoted and misused Isaiah 59:20-21
"And the Redeemer shall come to Zion, and unto them that turn from transgression in Jacob, saith the Lord. As for me, this is my covenant with them, saith the Lord....".

Isaiah 59:20 says "to Zion," not "out of" Zion. Isaiah says the Redeemer shall come "unto them that turn from transgression in Jacob." It does not say the Deliverer "shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob." In other words, he will come to those who turned from transgression on their own volition. It does not say he will turn away ungodliness. Moreover, "when I shall take away their sins" is not in Isaiah 59. Paul created that out of nothing. Nowhere does Isaiah use the word "saved" or "salvation" as Paul uses it.

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"as he saith also in Hosea, I will call them my people, which were not my people; and her beloved, which was not beloved. And it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people; there shall they be called the children of the living God" Rom. 9:25-26

Paul misquoted and misused Hosea 2:23
B> "…and I will say to them which were not my people, Thou art my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God"
and
Hosea 1:10 "…and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, Ye are not my people, there it shall be said unto them, Ye are the sons of the living God". Hosea 1:10 is speaking only of Jews as Hosea 1:11 "Then shall the children of Judah and the children of Israel be gathered together" shows. It is not referring to Gentiles and does not justify spreading the word to Gentiles. "and her beloved, which was not beloved" is not in Hosea. Paul created the words. Hosea 2:23 says, "and they shall say, Thou art my God," which Paul conveniently left out of his quote since millions of Gentiles have clearly not made such a statement.

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"But the righteousness which is of faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall ascend into heaven? [that is, to bring Christ down from above] or, who shall descend into the deep? [that is, to bring up Christ again from the dead]. But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach....", Rom. 10:6-8

Paul mutilated Deut. 30:12-14
"It is not in heaven, that thou shouldest say, Who shall go up for us to heaven, and bring it unto us, that we may hear it, and do it? Neither is it beyond the sea, that thou shouldest say, Who shall go over the sea for us, and bring it unto us, that we may hear it? But the word is very nigh unto thee in thy mouth, and in thy heart, that thou mayest do it".
The latter is only saying that his (Moses) commandments are easy to obtain. They are not far off but as close as one's heart or mouth. Deut. says nothing about "faith." It refers to seeking "it" and doing "it," not seeking "him" or doing "him." It does not even imply Christ or Jesus, let alone mention him. Deut. is referring to Penitence and is not about believing on or bringing down Jesus from heaven or up from the dead. Deut. is saying that God wills us to repent of sin and that you may know when you have sinned. You have only to look at his law which is very close by.

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"This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them; and their sins and iniquities will I remember no more" Heb. 10:16-17

Paul misquoted and misapplied Jer. 31:33-34 "…but this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts,...for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more".
The New Covenant referred to in Jer. 31:31 is not that of Jesus' New Testament but a reaffirmation with Israel of the importance of following the Old Law. Jer. 31:33 clearly states that God's law (my law) will be put in them. Jer. says the law will be written in their hearts, not their minds and God's law will be put in their inward parts, not their hearts. "And in their minds will I write them" does not appear in Jer.

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"As it is written, Behold, I lay in Zion a stumbling stone and rock of offence: and whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed" Rom. 9:33

Paul misquoted Isa. 28:16
"Therefore thus saith the Lord God, Behold, I lay in Zion for a foundation a stone, a tried stone, a precious corner stone, a sure foundation: he that believeth shall not make haste".
Isaiah says nothing about "on him" or "being ashamed." Isaiah says God will lay a precious corner stone, a sure foundation, not a stumbling stone or rock of offence. Isa. 8:14 "And he shall be for a sanctuary; but for a stone of stumbling and for a rock of offence to both the houses of Israel." speaks of a stumbling stone and a rock of offense, but it is speaking of God himself. Paul deceptively combined two unrelated verses and altered the text in the process.

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For they could not endure that which was commanded, And if so much as a beast touch the mountain, it shall be stoned, or thrust through with a dart Heb. 12:20

It is a misconstruction of Ex. 19:12-13

And thou shalt set bounds unto the people round about, saying, Take heed to yourselves, that ye go not up into the mount, or touch the border of it: whosoever toucheth the mount shall be surely put to death:
13There shall not an hand touch it, but he shall surely be stoned, or shot through; whether it be beast or man, it shall not live: when the trumpet soundeth long, they shall come up to the mount.

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For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world. Heb. 4:3

It is a perversion of Psalm 95:11.

Unto whom I sware in my wrath that they should not enter into my rest.

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"For even Christ pleased not himself: but, as it is written, The reproaches of them that reproached thee fell on me" Rom. 15:3

Paul misinterpreted Psalm 69:9. The "me" referred to in Psalm 69:9 is David; he is speaking, not Jesus.

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"…I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?" Heb. 1:5

Paul misinterpreted and misapplied 2 Sam. 7:14

"I will be his father, and he shall be my son. If he commit iniquity, I will chasten him with the rod of men and with the stripes of the children of men".
In 2 Sam. 7:14 God is saying he will call Solomon, not Jesus, his son. How could Jesus commit iniquity which Paul omitted. It must be referring to a mere mortal like Solomon. Certainly God would not beat Jesus with a rod, cause stripes to be put on him, or threaten to chasten him with stripes.

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In Heb. 12:21 "…and so terrible was the sight, that Moses said, I exceedingly fear and quake...." Paul is referring to the fear Moses had when he stood at the base of an untouchable mountain and witnessed blazing fire, gloom, darkness, trumpets sounding, and words.

Yet, Paul is using Deut. 9:19 "For I was afraid of the anger and hot displeasure, wherewith the Lord was wroth against you to destroy you"
which is actually referring to Moses' fear of the Lord's anger at the time he found them worshipping the Golden Calf.

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"...even Jesus made an high priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec" Paul misapplied Psalm 110:4

"The Lord hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek") to Jesus.
The "thou" in Psalm 110:4 is referring to David, not Jesus.

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"Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree" Paul used Deut. 21:22-23

"And if a man have committed a sin worthy of death, and he be put to death, and thou hang him on a tree: his body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt in any wise bury him that day, ...."
for his own ends.

Deut. 21:22 is referring to a sinful man who couldn't be Jesus since the latter is supposedly sinless (1 Peter 2:22). Jesus was not hanged. He did not die on a tree and never remained "upon the tree" during the night. Actually Paul is calling the alleged "Savior" cursed.

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"For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord" Heb. 10:30

Paul quoted part of Deut. 32:35

"Vengeance is mine, and recompense...." and falsely attributed the original comment to the Lord. The quote was actually made by someone who felt he was God's agent.

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"But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly his faith is counted for righteousness. Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin" Rom. 4:5-8

Paul misinterpreted Psalms 32:1-2

"Blessed is he whose transgression is forgiven, whose sin is covered. Blessed is the man unto whom the Lord imputeth not iniquity, and in whose spirit there is no guile". Just because God forgave iniquities does not mean one is saved by faith. Psalms says nothing about belief or believing "on him." In no sense does Psalms imply that a man's sins are forgiven because he believed or accepted something.

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"But God raised him from the dead. And he was seen many days of them which come up with him from Galilee to Jerusalem, who are his witnesses unto the people. and we declare unto you glad tidings how that the promise which was made unto the fathers, God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that he hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm '...the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee'". Where does Psalm 2 say or where is it equivalent to saying in some distant day I will raise Jesus of Nazareth, Joseph's son, from the dead.

The second Psalm does not promise that:
anyone will rise from the dead,
he who is the Son of God must rise from the dead,
Jesus of Nazareth is the son of God or
anyone risen from the dead shall be the son of God.

Moreover, the Psalmist in Psalm 2:7 is speaking of himself, not Jesus.

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"Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me; In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin thou hast had no pleasure" Heb. 10:5-6

Paul misquoted and misapplied Psalm 40:6

"Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened: burnt offering and sin offering hast thou not required".
"but a body hast thou prepared me" is not in Psalm 40:6. Paul created it. "mine ears hast thou opened" is in Psalm 40:6 but Paul omitted it.
Psalm 40:12 "...mine iniquities have taken hold upon me, so that I am not able to look up; they are more than the hairs of mine head...." was written by the same person who wrote Psalm 40:6 who couldn't have been Jesus since the former committed many iniquities. Paul took the verse out of context.
Moreover, nowhere in the Gospels did Jesus say what Paul attributed to him in Heb. 10:5-7.