“The issue that Mary and Joseph weren’t married until after the birth is inconsequential to the fact that SAM is saying Joseph didn’t KNOW (have intercourse) with Mary until AFTER Christ was born (the ‘till’ in question).”
The sentence refers to Mary and Joseph marrying after the birth of Christ. Matthew 1:24-25 is all one sentence. The till refers to them marrying, not to intercourse.
Think of it this way. Joseph eventualy accepted Mary but did not take her into his household, (and never slept with her) until Christ was born.
“Matthew 1:24-25 is all one sentence. The till refers to them marrying, not to intercourse.”
Uhhh.... no. Try reading Matthew 1: 24-25:
“24 When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him: he took his wife, 25 but knew her not until she had given birth to a son. And he called his name Jesus.”
Let’s read it:
“When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him; he took his wife,...”
Looks like he had a wife BEFORE Christ was born according to Matthew.
“...but knew her not....” What does “knew” mean? To marry, or to have sex?
According to Stong’s, marriage isn’t covered. Intercourse is.
And, you’re right; he didn’t have sex with her UNTIL Christ was born. Which means she wasn’t perpetually a virgin.
Hoss