Rom 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
Jesus in the flesh, died...Would there be no death in the flesh had the flesh been sinless??? Perhaps you could ask Adam...
Rom 6:22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.
Now that's some pretty powerful stuff...
There is no reason to think that God could not be born into a body that was subject to Adam's original sin and yet still be sinless...
Because I am subject to original sin, I am tempted to sin, I feel pain, I get old or sick and die...Or someone runs a spear thru me...But yet, I still live...I will be resurrected with a new, glorified body...
Was anything different for Jesus???
Was Jesus body void of original sin or was Jesus said to have committed no sin???
1Pe 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth:
“Jesus in the flesh, died...Would there be no death in the flesh had the flesh been sinless??? Perhaps you could ask Adam.”
You are quite right that we are immortal without sin. However, Christ died, not because of HIS actions, but because he was crucified and chose to die. Had Christ chosen not to die, he would not have died. This is bad theology.
“There is no reason to think that God could not be born into a body that was subject to Adam’s original sin and yet still be sinless.”
That’s two PROTESTANTS who have denied that Christ was sinless. Wow. This is bad. This is really basic Christology. Christ was born without sin. Wholly and completely, without original sin.
“Because I am subject to original sin, I am tempted to sin, I feel pain, I get old or sick and die...Or someone runs a spear thru me...But yet, I still live...I will be resurrected with a new, glorified body.”
Yes, but with Christ he could still die, for the flesh is not immune to privation. But the Curse of Adam was not upon him. That much we know.
“Was Jesus body void of original sin or was Jesus said to have committed no sin???”
Not either or question. Adam, without original sin, fell and was tempted by evil to disobey God. Christ, without original sin, succeeded and redeemed the race of Man, where Adam fell.
That he was without original sin does not make Christ immune to sin, for if this were so, then Adam himself would not have fallen. Sin is ultimately through the will, and Christ, though he suffered from the privations of hunger, and thirst, did not fall to the temptations offered by Satan.
1Pe 2:22 Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: