Posted on 12/05/2010 6:14:57 PM PST by RnMomof7
............The Historical Evidence
The Roman Catholic Church claims that this doctrine, like all of their other distinctive doctrines, has the “unanimous consent of the Fathers” (contra unanimen consensum Patrum).[10] They argue that what they teach concerning the Immaculate Conception has been the historic belief of the Christian Church since the very beginning. As Ineffabilis Deus puts it,
The Catholic Church, directed by the Holy Spirit of God… has ever held as divinely revealed and as contained in the deposit of heavenly revelation this doctrine concerning the original innocence of the august Virgin… and thus has never ceased to explain, to teach and to foster this doctrine age after age in many ways and by solemn acts.[11]
However, the student of church history will quickly discover that this is not the case. The earliest traces of this doctrine appear in the middle ages when Marian piety was at its bloom. Even at this time, however, the acceptance of the doctrine was far from universal. Both Thomas Aquinas and Bernard of Clairvaux rejected the immaculate conception. The Franciscans (who affirmed the doctrine) and the Dominicans (who denied it, and of whom Aquinas was one) argued bitterly over whether this doctrine should be accepted, with the result that the pope at the time had to rule that both options were acceptable and neither side could accuse the other of heresy (ironic that several centuries later, denying this doctrine now results in an anathema from Rome).
When we go further back to the days of the early church, however, the evidence becomes even more glaring. For example, the third century church father Origen of Alexandria taught in his treatise Against Celsus (3:62 and 4:40) that that the words of Genesis 3:16 applies to every woman without exception. He did not exempt Mary from this. As church historian and patristic scholar J.N.D. Kelly points out,
Origen insisted that, like all human beings, she [Mary] needed redemption from her sins; in particular, he interpreted Simeon’s prophecy (Luke 2.35) that a sword would pierce her soul as confirming that she had been invaded with doubts when she saw her Son crucified.”[12]
Also, it must be noted that it has been often pointed out that Jesus’ rebuke of Mary in the wedding of Cana (John 2:1-12) demonstrates that she is in no wise perfect or sinless. Mark Shea scoffs at this idea that Mary is “sinfully pushing him [Jesus] to do theatrical wonders in John 2,” arguing that “there is no reason to think [this] is true.”[13] However, if we turn to the writings of the early church fathers, we see that this is precisely how they interpreted Mary’s actions and Jesus’ subsequent rebuke of her. In John Chrysostom’s twenty-first homily on the gospel of John (where he exegetes the wedding of Cana), he writes,
For where parents cause no impediment or hindrance in things belonging to God, it is our bounden duty to give way to them, and there is great danger in not doing so; but when they require anything unseasonably, and cause hindrance in any spiritual matter, it is unsafe to obey. And therefore He answered thus in this place, and again elsewhere “Who is My mother, and who are My brethren?” (Matt. xii.48), because they did not yet think rightly of Him; and she, because she had borne Him, claimed, according to the custom of other mothers, to direct Him in all things, when she ought to have reverenced and worshiped Him. This then was the reason why He answered as He did on that occasion… He rebuked her on that occasion, saying, “Woman, what have I to do with thee?” instructing her for the future not to do the like; because, though He was careful to honor His mother, yet He cared much more for the salvation of her soul, and for the doing good to the many, for which He took upon Him the flesh.[14]
Now why on earth would Jesus care for the salvation of Mary’s soul at this point in time if she was already “preventatively” saved through having been immaculately conceived, as was claimed earlier? That does not make any sense, whatsoever. Likewise, Theodoret of Cyrus agrees with John Chrysostom in saying that the Lord Jesus rebuked Mary during the wedding at Cana. In chapter two of his Dialogues, he writes,
If then He was made flesh, not by mutation, but by taking flesh, and both the former and the latter qualities are appropriate to Him as to God made flesh, as you said a moment ago, then the natures were not confounded, but remained unimpaired. And as long as we hold thus we shall perceive too the harmony of the Evangelists, for while the one proclaims the divine attributes of the one only begotten—the Lord Christ—the other sets forth His human qualities. So too Christ our Lord Himself teaches us, at one time calling Himself Son of God and at another Son of man: at one time He gives honour to His Mother as to her that gave Him birth [Luke 2:52]; at another He rebukes her as her Lord [John 2:4].[15] And then there is Augustine of Hippo, whom many Roman Catholic apologists attempt to appeal to for their belief in the immaculate conception. They like to quote a portion of chapter 42 of his treatise, On Nature and Grace, where Augustine states,
We must except the holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honour to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon her who had the merit to conceive and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin.[16]
However, those who quote this passage miss the point of what Augustine is trying to communicate. He was trying to refute the Pelagian heretics (who were the ones who were claiming that Mary—among other biblical characters—were sinless, since they denied the depravity of man). The article explaining Augustine’s view of Mary on Allan Fitzgerald’s Augustine Through the Ages helps clear up misconceptions regarding this passage:
His [Augustine's] position must be understood in the context of the Pelagian controversy. Pelagius himself had already admitted that Mary, like the other just women of the Old testament, was spared from any sin. Augustine never concedes that Mary was sinless but prefers to dismiss the question… Since medieval times this passage [from Nature and Grace] has sometimes been invoked to ground Augustine’s presumed acceptance of the doctrine of the immaculate conception. It is clear nonetheless that, given the various theories regarding the transmission of original sin current in his time, Augustine in that passage would not have meant to imply Mary’s immunity from it.[17]
This same article then goes on to demonstrate that Augustine did in fact believe that Mary received the stain of original sin from her parents:
His understanding of concupiscence as an integral part of all marital relations made it difficult, if not impossible, to accept that she herself was conceived immaculately. He… specifies in [Contra Julianum opus imperfectum 5.15.52]… that the body of Mary “although it came from this [concupiscence], nevertheless did not transmit it for she did not conceive in this way.” Lastly, De Genesi ad litteram 10.18.32 asserts: “And what more undefiled than the womb of the Virgin, whose flesh, although it came from procreation tainted by sin, nevertheless did not conceive from that source.”[18]
As can be seen here, these and many other early church fathers[19] did not regard Mary as being sinless or immaculately conceived. It is quite clear that the annals of church history testify that Rome cannot claim that this belief is based upon the “unanimous consent of the fathers,” since the belief that Mary was sinless started out among Pelagian heretics during the fifth century and did not become an acceptable belief until at least the beginning of the middle ages.
Conclusion
As has been demonstrated here, neither scripture nor church history support the contention of the Roman Catholic Church that Mary was sinless by virtue of having been immaculately conceived. In fact, Rome did not even regard this as an essential part of the faith until the middle of the nineteenth century. This should cause readers to pause and question why on earth Rome would anathematize Christians for disbelieving in a doctrine that was absent from the early church (unless one wants to side with the fifth century Pelagians) and was considered even by Rome to be essential for salvation until a century and a half ago. Because Rome said so? But their reasons for accepting this doctrine in the first place are so demonstrably wrong. After all, they claim that this was held as divinely revealed from the very beginning, even though four and a half centuries’ worth of patristic literature proves otherwise. This ought to be enough to cast doubt not only on Rome’s claims regarding Mariology, but their claims to authority on matters of faith and morals in general.
Don't go there. I once posted a prayer of exorcism in Latin on a similar thread and the anti-Catholics and the mod went ape. The post was pulled and I was warned in no uncertain terms to never do it again. (I still don't know what other Catholic rituals are prohibited)The reaction, not unexpected, was like I had poured hot acid on them.
I am sorry your graciousness and rational behavior have made you subject to attack. I know Our Lord is pleased with your charity and may you be always in His care.
And yet it was your post that was pulled.
Wow. Who are you?
Ask Dane and Willie Green.
Oops, you can't! Google "Free Republic," my FReep name, and the names of those two zotted trolls
I likes to smack me some trolls! ;-)
I'm pinging a few others so they might see your real intentions on this thread.
Try checking my posts. I've been pinging metmom to most of my responses. We've also FReep Mailed each other quite regularly. In fact, I've communicated most of those you've pinged.
I also communicate with the Catholics. I reject the doctrine of their Church, but I still recognize them as loved by God and beautifully made in His devine image. I also pray for their release from the bonds of their false beliefs. Have you got a problem with that?
There have been other FReepers who have started out friendly to the Reformation who ended up defending Rome and its anti-Scriptural errors.
So you assert that by disagreeing with your accusations against Ratzinger, I'm defending Rome and its anti-Scriptural errors. Your circular logic is even screwier than Cronos'!
Yo, Cronos! No offense, dawg!
Oh, yeah...read my exchange with Cronos.
Post under any other name, do you?
No I don't. How many names do you use?
I'm simply a Christian who believes in Truth. Slander is not truth.
By the way, you may have not directly called FReeper Catholics "NAZIs," but your posts certainly seemed to insinuate it.
If Ratzinger is really what you claim, God will deal with him. Best of all, you'll be standing before His throne, with the rest of us, to witness it.
If you're wrong, we'll all witness that, as well.
Thanks for your kind comment about
“. . . a bit more style.”
I think.
LOL.
Dang! What did I miss? FReep Mail me!
lol. And nothing has been the same since. 8~)
rotflolol
Ahhhhhhhh wellllll
what can I say.
This old dog does TRY and learn some new tricks! LOL.
LUB SIS.
Wait a minute, who is on which side? And why am I holding this banjo?
Look, we all need to tell each other apart. I vote one side wears stars on their bellies...
Metmom, show me your belly!
That post is stealing my account’s bandwidth and storage units.
Quix did
most certainly
NOT do it first.
Dang! I hate being wrong. It's time to go to my happy place.
Mmmmm...Beer Milkshake!
Now aren’t you glad i often put links to my quotes? And while i quote RC sources, i am aware that they often place a degree of spin on what is presented, and while a majority decision affirming the present RC canon may not have been in doubt, RC sources which i have noted show that the dissent was more than what the above source indicates, with other evidence indicating that the decision to adopt the Florentine canon as an article of faith (with the anathema) may have been agreed to by only 44% of the council members, though the problem is a lack of clarity in the records.
And yet it cannot deny that there was some dissent, nor that the canonicity of the apocrypha was a matter of discussion and disagreement for ages.
“The lists are the same; whether the first was infallibly defined or not;”
No, the lists are not all the same, as they must be for a settled canon of God’s word, as i have already informed you, and notice the the CE page you cite does not reference Rome, Hippo or Carthage was being what Trent saw as having “virtually” canonized the apocrypha, but the much more recent Florence (1400’s)
Thus the canon had not been finally settled, nor was Luther unique in rejecting the apocrypha.
..”but also believe that that declaration was in response to the reformers.”
That was never in dispute, and without the (imperfect but necessary) Reformation disagreements to what exactly constituted Scripture would have continued with Rome, as well as abuses, which is revealing.
Good night.
Love your humor.
So much of the ‘humor’ from the RC’s is mean-spirited, spiteful and vengeful.
They seem to be totally unable to distinguish between
goring sacred cows and going the persons addicted to sacred cows.
I don't take kindly to that kind of personal assault. I didn't call you any names; I didn't call any Roman Catholic FReeper any name. I was clearly discussing the institution of the Roman Catholic church and its leader, a man who believes himself to be "another Christ."
Name-calling is always the last resort of someone who has no valid argument, and I was surprised to see that coming from you since I had followed your comments and agreed with most of them.
We part ways at calling each other names.
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