I would like to hear in what case Biblically that would be true.
As I understand it, rabbinical Judaism teaches that the Messianic promises of the Old Testament do not apply to Christ or His followers and characterizes the opposing Christian tradition as Replacement Theology or Supersessionism. Hagee and the "Christian" Zionists go along with this rabbinical teaching out of an apparent phobia that disagreement would expose them to charges of "historical Christian anti-Semitism."
2 Chronicles 2:4
“Behold, I build an house to the name of the LORD my God, to dedicate it to him, and to burn before him sweet incense, and for the continual shewbread, and for the burnt offerings morning and evening, on the sabbaths, and on the new moons, and on the solemn feasts of the LORD our God. This is an ordinance forever to Israel.”
If the church is the true Israel, how does ‘forever’ apply?