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To: OLD REGGIE; Dr. Eckleburg; boatbums; The Theophilus; metmom

In 7189 you said that “it was a pastoral letter from one equal church to another, viz “The church of God which sojourns at Rome” to “the church of God sojourning at Corinth”. My point was that it was a legal impossibility. Then the conversation sidetracked into whether or not the Early Church had canon law. Indeed I exagerrated when I said “common practice”. But you did suggest that a bishop could teach another bishop, did you not?


7,334 posted on 03/15/2011 7:44:18 PM PDT by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex; Dr. Eckleburg; boatbums; The Theophilus; metmom
In 7189 you said that “it was a pastoral letter from one equal church to another, viz “The church of God which sojourns at Rome” to “the church of God sojourning at Corinth”. My point was that it was a legal impossibility. Then the conversation sidetracked into whether or not the Early Church had canon law. Indeed I exagerrated when I said “common practice”. But you did suggest that a bishop could teach another bishop, did you not?

"But you did suggest that a bishop could teach another bishop, did you not?"

No; however, I will categorically state that a bishop could teach another bishop. Hell, I can teach a bishop a thing or two.

I would appreciate it greatly if you could send me a link to the Canon Law in effect in the 4th or 5th century. Be advised that a reference to a known piece of fiction is of no account.

The following link may be helpful in determining when Canon Law was developed: Canon Law

7,335 posted on 03/16/2011 11:03:33 AM PDT by OLD REGGIE (I am a Biblical Unitarian?)
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