The word ἔρχομαι is being interpreted not as walking in (since the doors were shut), but as appearing without opening the doors. Thus, by analogy, Jesus' birth did not open the womb, but was, like the Incarnation, a supernatural event leaving Mary a virgin.
While it may be consistent, the problem I see with that analogy is that Jesus could not claim the status of the firstborn (of redemption) since in order to have the status of the firstborn the progeny had to "open the womb." (as per the OT).
When did He claim it, and are you sure the legalisms of the Old Testament, -- not that we care either way -- exclude cases of virgin birth?