[christianhomeschoolmommaof3]

How can you say she is without sin when the Bible contradicts that? I am asking this question sincerely and without malice.

Romans 3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;

[Sir_Ed]

They accidentally removed the asterisk and footnote that said “For all have sinned* and fallen short of the glory of God. * Except for Mary”

Ed

[Earthdweller]

"How can you say she is without sin when the Bible contradicts that?"

*crickets* LOL

Last I checked it is not a sin to become a mother or give birth. The sin comes in when you have sex with someone who has not pledged to stick around and help you with the little squealer...(sin = harming yourself or others. It's that simple. God loves you.)

That said..of course Mary was a sinner like the rest of us, we humans are not perfect...none of us.

[Mad Dawg]

This is not meant to establish the "Immaculate Conception" but only to address an argument against it.

But the Bible is clear that Jesus was the only perfect one.

Well, there's a difference between perfect and sinless.

But in any event, while one may joke about asterisks and all, if we are to take Paul with logical rigor, then Jesus sinned. But Jesus did not sin, therefore "all" does not mean "all". Therefore it is loosely said , and finding another instance of a sinless person does not take away from the point Paul as making when he quoted that psalm.

Further, the teaching is that Mary was not sinless by her own power but by a special grace. The common metaphor is that we have been pulled out of the bog by Jesus, while Mary was caught just as she was about to fall into it.