Yes, I realize that...but does it matter? She was still pregnant...still in a scandalous position. Would G-d ever put a mortal woman in such a position? No. She still belonged to a man. The baby would technically be a bastard child since it wasnt Josephs. I know that sounds harsh but it is true. And would or could G-d violate his own Torah against illicit relationships? No. The whole thing is not moral by G-ds own word.
And that is why God provided Jesus with an earthly father. He wasn’t a bastard, He had a father. What illicit relationship? If God did not have sex with her, where is the illicit relationship?