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To: kosta50
I don't know why you would assume that given that 1 Pet 1:15 is in aorist, passive, imperative (γενήθητε), and 1 Pet 1:16 (in Textus Receptus) is in second aorist, middle (active), imperative (γένεσθε).

I am not using the Textus Receptus but rather the 1968 edition of United Bible Societies version which indeed has the future ῞Αγιοι ἔσεσθε in vs. 16. When you mentioned the second aorist the closed construction that I could find was the aorist imperative γενήθητε in vs. 15 which I thought you had misconstrued as a second aorist.

The difference between these two (in Textus Receptus only) is that 15 is in the passive voice, whereas 16 is in middle or active voice. In plain English it means that in 15 you are to (passively) receive holiness, while in 16 you are to (actively) achieve it!

γίνομαι is a deponent verb. Thus while it has a passive form it has an active meaning. According to the Liddell and Scott Greek Lexicon, when followed by a predicate its meaning is: come into certain state, become. Thus St. Peter is giving a command to do something.

However in older reliable versions of the Greek NT 1 Pet 1:16 is in future, no voice, indicative—something that will occur as a matter of fact. It is most definitely not a commandment (imperative) but logically follows verse 15.

St. Peter gives the quote from Leviticus in verse 16 as the authority for his command in verse 15, i.e. ἅγιοι … γένεσθε in verse 15 = ῞Αγιοι ἔσεσθε in verse 16. This is therefore a jussive future, a command (be holy), and not just a simple future as you would have it.

55 posted on 09/20/2010 9:49:47 AM PDT by Petrosius
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To: Petrosius
Here is the link to my source. Click on 5704 next to esesthe and it reads the following:

Word Tense
  Future

The future tense corresponds to the English future, and indicates the contemplated or certain occurrence of an event which has not yet occurred.

Word Voice
  No Tense or Voice Stated

In a number of places certain verbs are cited in Perschbacher's "The New Analytical Greek Lexicon" which do not have any tense or voice directly stated.

In almost all of these cases, one can assume that the tense is Present and the voice is Active, especially when the sense is that of a command (Imperative).

Word Mood
  Indicative

The indicative mood is a simple statement of fact. If an action really occurs or has occurred or will occur, it will be rendered in the indicative mood.

You can take it up with them, but there is no " jussive future" mentioned anywhere.  Also genesthe and esesthe are not equivalent as your equation sign seems to suggest. The former is aorist of  ginomai (to arise or to come into existence) and esesthe is future first person singular "to be" (eimí).

58 posted on 09/20/2010 12:55:35 PM PDT by kosta50 (God is tired of repenting -- Jeremiah 15:6, KJV)
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