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To: D-fendr; Deo volente; Mad Dawg
However, if the third premise is stated:

Mary must be immaculate to conceive Jesus

and that premise is false then the conclusion is invalid.

6,591 posted on 08/04/2010 2:09:30 PM PDT by the_conscience (We ought to obey God, rather than men. (Acts 5:29b))
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To: the_conscience

You’d have to prove that premise first.

“Mary must be immaculate to conceive Jesus” is a whole nuther syllogism, not necessary in the one in discussion. For example, the EO accept the logic of this syllogism, but consider the Immaculate Conception false or not proven.


6,594 posted on 08/04/2010 2:14:13 PM PDT by D-fendr (Deus non alligatur sacramentis sed nos alligamur.)
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To: the_conscience

Here’s the basic theological point: Jesus has two natures inseparably united in one person, that person is one of three Persons in One Godhead. That person is God, the Son in the Holy Trinity.

Mary gave birth, according to Incarnation Theology (and common sense), to a person, not a nature. A person whose two nature cannot and must not be separated in order for the Incarnation and the Holy Trinity to be true.

Any attempt to claim Mary gave birth to a nature or to separate whom Mary gave birth to into two natures is heresy.

I believe this is the theology for orthodox Christians, Trinitarian Christians, and others particularly those saying the Nicene Creed.

One can vary from this theology of course, but they do so at risk of heresy in the eyes of most Christians whose theologians hold the orthodox doctrine of the Trinity and the Incarnation.


6,599 posted on 08/04/2010 2:24:06 PM PDT by D-fendr (Deus non alligatur sacramentis sed nos alligamur.)
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